Homosexual Adultery: Not Grounds for Divorce?

January 31st, 2005 | Posted in: Quotes, Sexual Matters | Keywords: none | 11 Comments



Homosexual Adultery

Not Grounds for Divorce?

*** Watchtower 1972 January 1 pp.31-2 Questions from Readers ***

Questions from Readers

• Do homosexual acts on the part of a married person constitute a Scriptural ground for divorce, freeing the innocent mate to remarry?—U.S.A.

Homosexuality is definitely condemned in the Bible as something that will prevent individuals from gaining God’s approval. (1 Cor. 6:9, 10) However, whether an innocent mate would Scripturally be able to remarry after procuring a legal divorce from a mate guilty of homosexual acts must be determined on the basis of what the Bible says respecting divorce and remarriage…

While both homosexuality and bestiality are disgusting perversions, in the case of neither one is the marriage tie broken. It is broken only by acts that make an individual "one flesh" with a person of the opposite sex other than his or her legal marriage mate.

[Emphasis Added]



11 Comments

Comment by DrinyDiluer (Comment ID: 289999)

I’d prefer reading in my native language, because my knowledge of your languange is no so well. But it was interesting! Look for some my links:



Posted on December 21, 2007 at 4:31 am

 

Comment by otto marconi (Comment ID: 217957)

the quote above from the Jan 1 1972 watchtower shows that the Filthful and Disgraceful Slavebugger at that time thought that cuckolding was restricted to heterosexual affairs. As good slavebuggers they considered homosexual acts in this context less serious.
They -the Filthful and Disgraceful Slavebugger- are pederast.
All those young boys they cannot physically grab and insanely screw hard they long-distance screw them anyway thru the insanely repulsive JueoHuaVueaH (yhwh) upbringing.
I still have nightmares about my infancy and adolescence, that I never had thank to my brainwashed parents that nearly total-brainwashed me too, they destroyed my life and would have me dead had I needed blood in any emergency.



Posted on May 27, 2007 at 6:37 am

 

Comment by otto marconi (Comment ID: 207338)

Hello, the notorious ‘pay attention book’ by the Towers of All Terrors states at page 134:

“The marriage bond is not automatically broken in God’s
eyes by sex relations outside the marriage union; the
innocent mate may forgive. (Hos. 3: 1-3; 1 Cor. 13:4-8)

While elders should be informed one way or the other, it
is up to the innocent mate to decide whether to divorce or
not.
The innocent mate should be informed that resuming
sexual relations with the adulterous mate would indicate
forgiveness and would therefore cancel the Scriptural
ground for divorce. (w81 3/1 pp. 30-1)”

My question: how would elders know if the couple has resumed sex? Where in their bible they are authorized to be privy to what’s going on in other people’s bedrooms?

Cheers



Posted on April 25, 2007 at 11:33 pm


Comment by otto marconi (Comment ID: 217956)

I got the answer, because
the Filthful and Disgraceful Slavebugger (also known with the moniker ‘faithful and discreete slave’) has ruled so.
Praise to the Filthful and Disgraceful Slavebugger!



Posted on May 27, 2007 at 6:24 am

 
 

Comment by S. (Comment ID: 117161)

Using Paul’s letter to the Corinthians as way of “proving” that homosexuality is a sin, is at best highly questionable. In reality, the concept of a “homosexual” is quite a modern one, and it would very surprising to find this issue discussed in the scriptures, as surprising as to find a passage addressing the use mobile phones.

So, let’s have a look and analyse this properly.

The passage: In his first epistle to the church at Corinth, Paul lists many activities that will prevent people from inheriting the Kingdom of God (heaven).

The King James Version of the Bible translates verse 9 and 10 as:

“Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor EFFEMINATE, nor ABUSERS OF THEMSELVES WITH MANKIND, Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God.”

So I bothered to have a look at the Greek text and some other translations.

The original Greek text describes the two behaviours I printed in capitals as “malakoi” and “arsenokoitai.” Although these are often translated by modern Bibles as “homosexual,” we can be fairly certain that this is not the meaning that Paul wanted to convey. If he had, he would have used the Greek word “paiderasste.” That was the standard term at the time for male homosexuals. We can conclude that he probably meant something different from persons who engaged in male-male adult sexual behaviours

1) “Malakoi” is translated in both Matthew 11:8 and Luke 7:25 as “soft” (KJV) or as “fine” in references to clothing. It could also mean “loose” or “pliable,” as in the phrase “loose morals,” implying “unethical behaviour.” In the early Christian church, the words were interpreted by some as referring to persons who are pliable, easily influenced, without courage or stability. Non-Biblical writings of the era used the world to refer to lazy men, men who cannot handle hard work, and cowards. John Wesley’s Bible Notes defines “Malakoi” as those “Who live in an easy, indolent way; taking up no cross, enduring no hardship.”.
2) “Arsenokoitai” is made up of two parts: “arsen” means “man” or “male”; “koitai” means “beds.” The Septuagint (an ancient, pre-Christian translation of the Old Testament into Greek) translated the Hebrew “quadesh” in I Kings 14:24, 15:12 and 22:46 as “arsenokoitai.” They were referring to “male temple prostitutes” - people who engaged in ritual sex in Pagan temples. Some leaders in the early Christian church also thought that it meant temple prostitutes. Some authorities believe that it simply means male prostitutes with female customers - a practice which appears to have been a common practice in the Roman empire. One source refers to other writings which contained the word “arsenokoitai:” (Sibylline Oracles 2.70-77, Acts of John; Theophilus of Antioch Ad Autolycum). They suggest that the term refers “to some kind of economic exploitation by means of sex (but no necessarily homosexual sex).” Probably “pimp” or “man living off of the avails of prostitution” would be the closest English translations. It is worth noting that much Greek homosexual erotic literature has survived, none of it contains the word aresenokoitai.”

Strangely, there are also some texts in the Old Testament which may very well refer to Homosexual relationships, and these texts describe them as quite judgement free, even positive:
There are three such relationships mentioned:

Ruth and Naomi
Ruth 1:16-17 and 2:10-11

David and Jonathan
1 Samuel 18:1-4
1 Samuel 18:20-21
1 Samuel 20:41
2 Samuel 1:26

Daniel and Ashpenaz
Daniel 1:9

There are of course those who say that these texts refer to something a-sexual, and this is possible, but so there is other interpretation.

The question of homosexuality is a complicated one, and there are no simplistic answers. As to whether or not a divorce should be granted on the basis on one partner being a homosexual that depends on your view of what marriage is. Certainly I would not recommend marriage to a homosexual, both for his sake and his future wife’s.

The use of Paul’s letter in this way is a good example of what happens if you let your own prejudices giude you in your understanding of the bible.



Posted on December 28, 2006 at 1:12 pm


Comment by Markus (Comment ID: 117267)

Dear S,

Thanks for pointing out what we have known for a long time. The Bible condemns homosexuality. So do you, I am not exactly partial to it myself but it is a natural phenomena, as are tornadoes and hurricanes. How can you point out to us the standpoint of the Bible ie the rules of Biblegod when the same God condones slavery, human sacrifices, rape in certain circumstances, and murder of infants.
Rules have changed, get used to the idea, you are still banging your head against the concrete block of Christianity which itself is based on a book written a long time ago by old senile men who wished to influence people like yourself for their own selfish
viewpoints.
Gay people are a reality, and they are here to stay whether you or I like it or not, some have already been allowed to be legally married in some areas in CHURCHES, which means your beloved cornerstone of Christianity is already dividing yet again.
If you condemn homosexuals then why are you not standing up and shouting for the re-introduction of slavery? You are a typical fundamentalist hypocrite who uses the Bible to suit your own programmatic wishes no matter what harm will be caused to the folk around you.
You all make me sick.

Markus



Posted on December 28, 2006 at 5:02 pm


Comment by Markus (Comment ID: 117328)

Dear S,

I must humbly apologise for the above comment I directed at you. I like the hothead most people call me, acted without reading your comment in it’s entirety. I feel like quite the idiot.
You are clearly no fundamentalistic idiot as so accused.

I would like to get some input from a Greek scholar on the following scripture: 1st Corinthians 6:9-10 (NASB)
…the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God. Do not be deceived; neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor homosexuals… shall inherit the Kingdom of God.”
Could there be a different understanding to this ‘homosexual’ cited here in relation to our modern day standpoint?

Regards,
Markus



Posted on December 28, 2006 at 6:14 pm


Comment by S. (Comment ID: 117339)

Markus,

1st Corinthians 6:9-10 is is fact the text I was discussing in my post, I just put the translation from the King James Bible first, and then went through a walk of the Greek text of the same passage.



Posted on December 28, 2006 at 6:29 pm

 

Comment by Jones (Comment ID: 117371)

Hi Markus,
Some interesting stuff has come across the website over the past few days. It is hard to keep up. I did snicker a little when I read your first response to “S”. May I share a website with you? It has all the stuff you need to research for yourself word meanings. However to exchange dialog with others who has many more years in research means a great deal.
www.blueletterbible.org

Visit the site and you may find it helpful.
Happy New Year,
Jones



Posted on December 28, 2006 at 6:42 pm

 
 
 

Comment by manfred (Comment ID: 117404)

Your interpretation of 1 Corinthinans matches well with the one and only other passage where “Arsenokoitai” is mentioned:

1 Timothy 9-10

There is a list there of similar “evil doers”, but they are grouped together in themes, even synonyms:

There are six of them:

The lawless and disobedient : near synonymns
The ungodly & sinners: two near synonyms, again
The unholy & profane: two synonyms
The murderers of fathers & murderers of mothers & manslayers: three kinds of murderers
“Pornoi” & “arsenokoitai” & “andrapodistes”
Liars & perjurers etc.: again, two near synonyms.

Given that there five clear groups of words meaning much the same in each case, it is very likely that the bit I left in transliterated Greek must also have a similarly common theme.

a) “pornoi” can refer to to a male prostitute, having customers of both sexes, but more commonly means the person who profits from this, the “pimp” or brothel keeper, particularly so because most (but not all) prostitutes in the ancient world were in fact slaves.

b) “arsenokoitai” is that odd word we cannot find a proper translation for. Most likely it means the customer of a male prostitute.

c) “andrapodistes” is someone who “steals men”, takes a free man and enslaves them.

Taking the three words together, it seems that the common theme for all three is not homosexuality, but slavery: the keeper of slave prostitutes, their customers, and the supplier of slaves prostitutes.



Posted on December 28, 2006 at 7:13 pm

 
 

Comment by meddie (Comment ID: 116513)

OMG you’re quoting from an article that was written in 1972? Unlike the holy scripture those magazines are not inspired of god and have probably since been updated.
Any form of sex outside of the marriage arrangement is considered “fornication”, and when a partner commits fornication a divorce can be sought on this account.



Posted on December 27, 2006 at 11:11 pm

 

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